Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th edition is an ideal way to prepare for class exams, as well as the physiology sections of USMLE Phase 1. Not known concepts in physics. The 4th version/ edition is written by John E. Hall.
Contains a comprehensive overview of all major body systems, with emphasis on systemic interaction, homeostasis, and pathophysiology.
Designed as a companion to the 4th edition of Guyton and Hall Physiology Review Textbook in pdf of Medical Physiology, it highlights key concepts and features live page references to specific questions.
USMLE provides the necessary information for the preparation of the physiology part of Phase 1.
Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download
Table of Contents
Description:
| Book Name | Guyton and Hall Physiology Review |
| Author of Book | John E. Hall, |
| Edition | 4th |
| Language | English |
| Format | |
| Category | Guyton and Hall Books |
Preface:
The main purpose of this book is to provide students a tool for assessing their mastery of
physiology as presented in the Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition.
Self-assessment is an important component of effective learning, especially when studying a subject as complex as medical physiology. Guyton & Hall Physiology Review is designed to provide a comprehensive review of medical physiology through multiplechoice questions and explanations of the answers. Medical students preparing for the United States Medical Licensure Examinations (USMLE) will also find this book useful because many of the test questions have been constructed according to the USMLE format.
The questions and answers in this review are based on Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition (TMP 14). More than 1000 questions and answers are provided, and each answer is referenced to the Textbook of Medical Physiology to facilitate a more complete understanding of the topic. Illustrations are used to reinforce basic concepts. Some of the questions incorporate information from multiple chapters to test your ability to apply and integrate the principles necessary for mastery of medical physiology.
An effective way to use this book is to allow an average of 1 minute for each question in a unit, approximating the time limit for a question in the USMLE examination. As you proceed, indicate your answer next to each question. After finishing the questions and answers, verify your answers and carefully read the explanations provided. Read the additional material referred to in the Textbook of Medical Physiology, especially when incorrect answers were chosen.
Guyton and Hall Physiology Review should not be used as a substitute for the comprehensive information contained in the Textbook of Medical Physiology. Its main purpose is to assess your knowledge of physiology gained from study of the Textbook of Medical Physiology and other sources and to strengthen your ability to apply and integrate this knowledge. We have aempted to make this review as accurate as possible, and we hope that it will be a valuable tool for your study of physiology. We invite you to send us your critiques, suggestions for improvement, and notifications of any errors.
Topics of this Edition:
Unit I. Introduction to Physiology: The Cell and General Physiology
Unit II. Membrane Physiology, Nerve, and Muscle
Unit III. The Heart
Unit IV. The Circulation
Unit V. The Body Fluids and Kidneys
Unit VI. Blood Cells, Immunity, and Blood Coagulation
Unit VII. Respiration
Unit VIII. Aviation, Space, and Deep-Sea Diving Physiology
Unit IX. The Nervous System: A. General Principles and Sensory Physiology
Unit X. The Nervous System: B. The Special Senses
Unit XI. The Nervous System: C. Motor and Integrative Neurophysiology
Unit XII. Gastrointestinal Physiology
Unit XIII. Metabolism and Temperature Regulation
Unit XIV. Endocrinology and Reproduction
Unit XV. Sports Physiology
Normal Values for Selected Common Laboratory Measurements.
Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall
Introduction:
Unit I: Introduction to Physiology
- If the feedback gain of a control system is -3.0, this means that the
system is
A) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system
B) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 2/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system
C) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 3/4 of the
initial disturbance to the system
D) A positive feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
initial disturbance to the system - Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of
A) Proteins
B) Ions
C) Water
D) Microfilaments/cell cytoskeleton
E) Secretory vesicles - Organelles that neutralize drugs and toxins are
A) Nuclei
B) Mitochondria
C) Lysosomes
D) Peroxisomes
E) Endoplasmic reticulum - The most abundant cell membrane lipids are
A) Sphingolipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Cholesterol
D) Triglycerides
E) Sterols - The first stage of mitosis is called
A) Anaphase
B) Prophase
C) Prometaphase
D) Metaphase
E) Telophase - The region of repetitive nucleotide sequences located at each end of
a chromatid is called
A) Okazaki fragment
B) Replication fork
C) Telomere
D) Centriole
E) Lagging strand - Which of the following statements about DNA replication is
incorrect?
A) Both strands of the DNA in each chromosome are replicated
B) Both strands of the DNA helix are replicated in small portions
and then assembled, similar to the transcription of RNA
C) Before DNA can be replicated, the double stranded molecule
must be “unzipped” into two single strands
D) Uncoiling of DNA helixes is achieved by DNA helicase
enzymes
E) Once the DNA strands have been separated, a short piece of
RNA called an RNA primer binds to the 3’ end of the leading
strand - Which of the following statements about cell differentiation is
correct?
A) Differentiation results from selective loss of different genes
from cells
B) Differentiation results from selective repression of different
gene promoters
C) Differentiation results from selective activation of telomerase
in different cells
D) Differentiation results mainly from mutations of genes - Which statement about microRNAs (miRNAs) is correct?
A) miRNAs are formed in the cytoplasm and repress translation
or promote degradation of messenger RNA (mRNA) before it
can be translated
B) miRNAs are formed in the nucleus and then processed in the
cytoplasm by the dicer enzyme
C) miRNAs are short (21 to 23 nucleotide) double-stranded RNA
fragments that regulate gene expression
g g g p
D) miRNAs repress gene transcription - Compared with the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has
_ sodium ion concentration, _ potassium ion
concentration, _ chloride ion concentration, and
_ phosphate ion concentration.
A) Lower, lower, lower, lower
B) Lower, higher, lower, lower
C) Lower, higher, higher, lower
D) Higher, lower, higher, lower
E) Higher, higher, lower, higher
F) Higher, higher, higher, higher - Which of the following events does not occur during the process of
mitosis?
A) Condensation of the chromosomes
B) Replication of the genome
C) Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope
D) Alignment of the chromatids along the equatorial plate
E) Separation of the chromatids into two sets of 46 “daughter”
chromosomes - The term “glycocalyx” refers to what?
A) The negatively charged carbohydrate chains that protrude
into the cytosol from glycolipids and integral glycoproteins
B) The negatively charged carbohydrate layer on the outer cell
surface
C) The layer of anions aligned on the cytosolic surface of the
plasma membrane
D) The large glycogen stores found in “fast” muscles
E) A mechanism of cell-cell attachment - Which statement is incorrect?
A) The term “homeostasis” describes the maintenance of nearly
constant conditions in the body
B) In most diseases, homeostatic mechanisms are no longer
operating in the body
C) The body’s compensatory mechanisms often lead to
deviations from the normal range in some of the body’s
functions
D) Disease is generally considered to be a state of disrupted
homeostasis
Questions 14–16
A) Nucleolus
B) Nucleus
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus
F) Endosomes
G) Peroxisomes
H) Lysosomes
I) Cytosol
J) Cytoskeleton
K) Glycocalyx
L) Microtubules
For each of the scenarios described below, identify the most likely
subcellular site listed above for the deficient or mutant protein. - The abnormal cleavage of mannose residues during the posttranslational processing of glycoproteins results in the
development of lupus-like autoimmune disease in mice. The
abnormal cleavage is due to a mutation of the enzyme αmannosidase II. - The observation that abnormal cleavage of mannose residues from
glycoproteins causes an autoimmune disease in mice supports the
role of this structure in the normal immune response. - Studies completed on a 5-year-old boy show an accumulation of
cholesteryl esters and triglycerides in his liver, spleen, and
intestines and calcification of both adrenal glands. Additional
studies indicate the cause to be a deficiency in acid lipase A
activity.
Questions 17–20
A) Nucleolus
B) Nucleus
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus
F) Endosomes
G) Peroxisomes
H) Lysosomes
I) Cytosol
J) Cytoskeleton
K) Glycocalyx
L) Microtubules
Match the cellular location for each of the steps involved in the synthesis
and packaging of a secreted protein listed below with the correct term
from the list above. - Protein condensation and packaging
- Initiation of translation
- Gene transcription
- Worn-out organelles are transferred to lysosomes by which of the
following?
A) Autophagosomes
B) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
D) Golgi apparatus
E) Mitochondria - Which of the following does not play a direct role in the process of
transcription?
A) Helicase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Chain-terminating sequence
D) “Activated” RNA molecules
E) Promoter sequence - Which statement is true for both pinocytosis and phagocytosis?
A) Involves the recruitment of actin filaments
B) Occurs spontaneously and nonselectively
C) Endocytotic vesicles fuse with ribosomes that release
hydrolases into the vesicles
D) Is only observed in macrophages and neutrophils
E) Does not require ATP - Which statement is incorrect?
A) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
control cell growth
B) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
control cell division
C) Inactivation of anti-oncogenes protects against the
development of cancer
D) Several different simultaneously activated oncogenes are
often required to cause cancer - Which statemen
Unit II: Membrane Physiology, Nerve,
and Muscle:
- A patch clamp experiment shows a single sodium ion channel that
opens and closes repeatedly causing the electrical current through the
channel to change from one value to another. The open time of the
sodium channel averages 0.4 milliseconds in this experiment. Which of
the following best describes the electrical current of this sodium
channel during the open and closed states (in picoamperes)?
A) Open: 3.2; closed: 3.3
B) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.4
C) Open: 0.4; closed: 3.2
D) Open: 3.1; closed: 0.4
E) Open: 0.4; closed: 2.0
F) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.6 - Which of the following best describes the osmolarity of a solution
containing 150 millimolar NaCl, assuming a temperature of 37°C and a
dissociation constant of 0.93 (in milliosmoles)?
A) 150
B) 279
C) 300
D) 322
E) 393 - A 64-year-old man has serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/l (reference range,
3.5–5.0 mEq/l). Which of the following sets of changes best describe the
resting membrane potential (Vm) and K+
Equilibrium potential (EK) in
a typical neuron in this man compared with normal? (Assume normal
intracellular concentration of K +
.)
A) EK, less negative; Vm, less negative
B) EK, less negative; Vm, no change
C) EK, less negative; Vm, more negative
D) EK, more negative; Vm, less negative
E) EK, more negative; Vm, more negative
F) EK, more negative; Vm, no change
G) EK, no change; Vm, less negative
H) EK, no change; Vm, more negative
I) EK, no change; Vm, no change
Questions 4 and 5
In the figure shown, two compartments (Y and Z) are separated by an
artificial lipid bilayer without protein transporters. The relative concentrations
of test substances in compartments Y and Z at time zero are shown. Different
water volumes in compartments Y and Z are shown as diagrams A to E. Use
this information to answer the next two questions & Others.
Unit III: The Heart
Questions 1–4
A patient has a resting heart rate of 82 beats/min, normal blood
pressure, and normal body temperature. Use the pressure-volume
diagram of the left ventricle below to answer Questions 1–4.
- What is the stroke volume in milliliters?
A) 150
B) 100
C) 85
D) 50
E) 70 - What is the cardiac output of this patient?
A) 7000 ml/min
B) 50000 ml/min
C) 8200 ml/min
D) 8500 ml/min
E) 5000 ml/min - What is the extent of diastole in the ventricular pressure-volume
relationship?
A) At point B
B) From point D to point A
C) From point A to point C
D) From point D and point B
E) From point A and point B - What is correct about isovolumetric contraction?
A) Extends from B to C in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
B) Extends from D to A in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
C) Represents afterload in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
D) Represents a decrease in pressure with preserved volume
E) Depends on ventricular ejection - Which statement about action potential of cardiac muscle is most
accurate?
A) The calcium from T-tubules is less important as it is for
skeletal muscle
B) Phase 0 is predominantly dependent on slow potassium
channels
C) The end of the action potential (phase 2) causes an opening of
slow potassium channels
D) Action potential cause myofibrils to contract
E) Mucopolysaccharides inside the T-tubules provide chloride
ions to trigger phase 0 - A 47-year-old man has an ejection fraction of 0.32 and an end-diastolic volume of 160 ml. What is (approximately) the value of
end-systolic volume?
A) 48 ml
Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall
Unit IV: The Circulation
- Listed below are the hydrostatic and oncotic pressures within a
microcirculatory bed.
Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 25 mm Hg
Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 25 mm Hg
Venous hydrostatic pressure = 5 mm Hg
Arterial pressure = 80 mm Hg
Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = −5 mm Hg
Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure = 10 mm Hg
Capillary filtration rate = 150 ml/min
What is the capillary filtration coefficient (in ml/min/mm Hg) for this
capillary wall?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25 - A healthy 60-year-old woman with a 10-year history of
hypertension stands up from a supine position. Which set of
cardiovascular changes is most likely to occur in response to
standing up from a supine position?
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