Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th edition is an ideal way to prepare for class exams, as well as the physiology sections of USMLE Phase 1. Not known concepts in physics. The 4th version/ edition is written by John E. Hall.

Contains a comprehensive overview of all major body systems, with emphasis on systemic interaction, homeostasis, and pathophysiology.
Designed as a companion to the 4th edition of Guyton and Hall Physiology Review Textbook in pdf of Medical Physiology, it highlights key concepts and features live page references to specific questions.
USMLE provides the necessary information for the preparation of the physiology part of Phase 1.

 

 

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download

 

 

 

Description:

Book Name Guyton and Hall Physiology Review
Author of Book John E. Hall,
Edition 4th
Language English
Format PDF
Category Guyton and Hall Books

 

 

Preface:

The main purpose of this book is to provide students a tool for assessing their mastery of
physiology as presented in the Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition.

Self-assessment is an important component of effective learning, especially when studying a subject as complex as medical physiology. Guyton & Hall Physiology Review is designed to provide a comprehensive review of medical physiology through multiplechoice questions and explanations of the answers. Medical students preparing for the United States Medical Licensure Examinations (USMLE) will also find this book useful because many of the test questions have been constructed according to the USMLE format.

The questions and answers in this review are based on Guyton and Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th edition (TMP 14). More than 1000 questions and answers are provided, and each answer is referenced to the Textbook of Medical Physiology to facilitate a more complete understanding of the topic. Illustrations are used to reinforce basic concepts. Some of the questions incorporate information from multiple chapters to test your ability to apply and integrate the principles necessary for mastery of medical physiology.

An effective way to use this book is to allow an average of 1 minute for each question in a unit, approximating the time limit for a question in the USMLE examination. As you proceed, indicate your answer next to each question. After finishing the questions and answers, verify your answers and carefully read the explanations provided. Read the additional material referred to in the Textbook of Medical Physiology, especially when incorrect answers were chosen.

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review should not be used as a substitute for the comprehensive information contained in the Textbook of Medical Physiology. Its main purpose is to assess your knowledge of physiology gained from study of the Textbook of Medical Physiology and other sources and to strengthen your ability to apply and integrate this knowledge. We have aempted to make this review as accurate as possible, and we hope that it will be a valuable tool for your study of physiology. We invite you to send us your critiques, suggestions for improvement, and notifications of any errors.

 

 

Topics of this Edition:


Unit I. Introduction to Physiology: The Cell and General Physiology
Unit II. Membrane Physiology, Nerve, and Muscle
Unit III. The Heart
Unit IV. The Circulation
Unit V. The Body Fluids and Kidneys
Unit VI. Blood Cells, Immunity, and Blood Coagulation
Unit VII. Respiration
Unit VIII. Aviation, Space, and Deep-Sea Diving Physiology
Unit IX. The Nervous System: A. General Principles and Sensory Physiology
Unit X. The Nervous System: B. The Special Senses
Unit XI. The Nervous System: C. Motor and Integrative Neurophysiology
Unit XII. Gastrointestinal Physiology
Unit XIII. Metabolism and Temperature Regulation
Unit XIV. Endocrinology and Reproduction
Unit XV. Sports Physiology
Normal Values for Selected Common Laboratory Measurements.

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall

 

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall

 

Introduction:

Unit I: Introduction to Physiology

  1. If the feedback gain of a control system is -3.0, this means that the
    system is
    A) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
    initial disturbance to the system
    B) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 2/3 of the
    initial disturbance to the system
    C) A negative feedback system capable of correcting 3/4 of the
    initial disturbance to the system
    D) A positive feedback system capable of correcting 1/3 of the
    initial disturbance to the system
  2. Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of
    A) Proteins
    B) Ions
    C) Water
    D) Microfilaments/cell cytoskeleton
    E) Secretory vesicles
  3. Organelles that neutralize drugs and toxins are
    A) Nuclei
    B) Mitochondria
    C) Lysosomes
    D) Peroxisomes
    E) Endoplasmic reticulum
  4. The most abundant cell membrane lipids are
    A) Sphingolipids
    B) Phospholipids
    C) Cholesterol
    D) Triglycerides
    E) Sterols
  5. The first stage of mitosis is called
    A) Anaphase
    B) Prophase
    C) Prometaphase
    D) Metaphase
    E) Telophase
  6. The region of repetitive nucleotide sequences located at each end of
    a chromatid is called
    A) Okazaki fragment
    B) Replication fork
    C) Telomere
    D) Centriole
    E) Lagging strand
  7. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is
    incorrect?
    A) Both strands of the DNA in each chromosome are replicated
    B) Both strands of the DNA helix are replicated in small portions
    and then assembled, similar to the transcription of RNA
    C) Before DNA can be replicated, the double stranded molecule
    must be “unzipped” into two single strands
    D) Uncoiling of DNA helixes is achieved by DNA helicase
    enzymes
    E) Once the DNA strands have been separated, a short piece of
    RNA called an RNA primer binds to the 3’ end of the leading
    strand
  8. Which of the following statements about cell differentiation is
    correct?
    A) Differentiation results from selective loss of different genes
    from cells
    B) Differentiation results from selective repression of different
    gene promoters
    C) Differentiation results from selective activation of telomerase
    in different cells
    D) Differentiation results mainly from mutations of genes
  9. Which statement about microRNAs (miRNAs) is correct?
    A) miRNAs are formed in the cytoplasm and repress translation
    or promote degradation of messenger RNA (mRNA) before it
    can be translated
    B) miRNAs are formed in the nucleus and then processed in the
    cytoplasm by the dicer enzyme
    C) miRNAs are short (21 to 23 nucleotide) double-stranded RNA
    fragments that regulate gene expression
    g g g p
    D) miRNAs repress gene transcription
  10. Compared with the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has
    _ sodium ion concentration, _ potassium ion
    concentration, _ chloride ion concentration, and
    _
    phosphate ion concentration.
    A) Lower, lower, lower, lower
    B) Lower, higher, lower, lower
    C) Lower, higher, higher, lower
    D) Higher, lower, higher, lower
    E) Higher, higher, lower, higher
    F) Higher, higher, higher, higher
  11. Which of the following events does not occur during the process of
    mitosis?
    A) Condensation of the chromosomes
    B) Replication of the genome
    C) Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope
    D) Alignment of the chromatids along the equatorial plate
    E) Separation of the chromatids into two sets of 46 “daughter”
    chromosomes
  12. The term “glycocalyx” refers to what?
    A) The negatively charged carbohydrate chains that protrude
    into the cytosol from glycolipids and integral glycoproteins
    B) The negatively charged carbohydrate layer on the outer cell
    surface
    C) The layer of anions aligned on the cytosolic surface of the
    plasma membrane
    D) The large glycogen stores found in “fast” muscles
    E) A mechanism of cell-cell attachment
  13. Which statement is incorrect?
    A) The term “homeostasis” describes the maintenance of nearly
    constant conditions in the body
    B) In most diseases, homeostatic mechanisms are no longer
    operating in the body
    C) The body’s compensatory mechanisms often lead to
    deviations from the normal range in some of the body’s
    functions
    D) Disease is generally considered to be a state of disrupted
    homeostasis
    Questions 14–16
    A) Nucleolus
    B) Nucleus
    C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
    E) Golgi apparatus
    F) Endosomes
    G) Peroxisomes
    H) Lysosomes
    I) Cytosol
    J) Cytoskeleton
    K) Glycocalyx
    L) Microtubules
    For each of the scenarios described below, identify the most likely
    subcellular site listed above for the deficient or mutant protein.
  14. The abnormal cleavage of mannose residues during the posttranslational processing of glycoproteins results in the
    development of lupus-like autoimmune disease in mice. The
    abnormal cleavage is due to a mutation of the enzyme αmannosidase II.
  15. The observation that abnormal cleavage of mannose residues from
    glycoproteins causes an autoimmune disease in mice supports the
    role of this structure in the normal immune response.
  16. Studies completed on a 5-year-old boy show an accumulation of
    cholesteryl esters and triglycerides in his liver, spleen, and
    intestines and calcification of both adrenal glands. Additional
    studies indicate the cause to be a deficiency in acid lipase A
    activity.
    Questions 17–20
    A) Nucleolus
    B) Nucleus
    C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
    E) Golgi apparatus
    F) Endosomes
    G) Peroxisomes
    H) Lysosomes
    I) Cytosol
    J) Cytoskeleton
    K) Glycocalyx
    L) Microtubules
    Match the cellular location for each of the steps involved in the synthesis
    and packaging of a secreted protein listed below with the correct term
    from the list above.
  17. Protein condensation and packaging
  18. Initiation of translation
  19. Gene transcription
  20. Worn-out organelles are transferred to lysosomes by which of the
    following?
    A) Autophagosomes
    B) Granular endoplasmic reticulum
    C) Agranular endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Golgi apparatus
    E) Mitochondria
  21. Which of the following does not play a direct role in the process of
    transcription?
    A) Helicase
    B) RNA polymerase
    C) Chain-terminating sequence
    D) “Activated” RNA molecules
    E) Promoter sequence
  22. Which statement is true for both pinocytosis and phagocytosis?
    A) Involves the recruitment of actin filaments
    B) Occurs spontaneously and nonselectively
    C) Endocytotic vesicles fuse with ribosomes that release
    hydrolases into the vesicles
    D) Is only observed in macrophages and neutrophils
    E) Does not require ATP
  23. Which statement is incorrect?
    A) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
    control cell growth
    B) Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that code for proteins that
    control cell division
    C) Inactivation of anti-oncogenes protects against the
    development of cancer
    D) Several different simultaneously activated oncogenes are
    often required to cause cancer
  24. Which statemen

Unit II: Membrane Physiology, Nerve,
and Muscle:

  1. A patch clamp experiment shows a single sodium ion channel that
    opens and closes repeatedly causing the electrical current through the
    channel to change from one value to another. The open time of the
    sodium channel averages 0.4 milliseconds in this experiment. Which of
    the following best describes the electrical current of this sodium
    channel during the open and closed states (in picoamperes)?
    A) Open: 3.2; closed: 3.3
    B) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.4
    C) Open: 0.4; closed: 3.2
    D) Open: 3.1; closed: 0.4
    E) Open: 0.4; closed: 2.0
    F) Open: 0.4; closed: 0.6
  2. Which of the following best describes the osmolarity of a solution
    containing 150 millimolar NaCl, assuming a temperature of 37°C and a
    dissociation constant of 0.93 (in milliosmoles)?
    A) 150
    B) 279
    C) 300
    D) 322
    E) 393
  3. A 64-year-old man has serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/l (reference range,
    3.5–5.0 mEq/l). Which of the following sets of changes best describe the
    resting membrane potential (Vm) and K+
    Equilibrium potential (EK) in
    a typical neuron in this man compared with normal? (Assume normal
    intracellular concentration of K +
    .)
    A) EK, less negative; Vm, less negative
    B) EK, less negative; Vm, no change
    C) EK, less negative; Vm, more negative
    D) EK, more negative; Vm, less negative
    E) EK, more negative; Vm, more negative
    F) EK, more negative; Vm, no change
    G) EK, no change; Vm, less negative
    H) EK, no change; Vm, more negative
    I) EK, no change; Vm, no change
    Questions 4 and 5
    In the figure shown, two compartments (Y and Z) are separated by an
    artificial lipid bilayer without protein transporters. The relative concentrations
    of test substances in compartments Y and Z at time zero are shown. Different
    water volumes in compartments Y and Z are shown as diagrams A to E. Use
    this information to answer the next two questions & Others.

Unit III: The Heart

Questions 1–4
A patient has a resting heart rate of 82 beats/min, normal blood
pressure, and normal body temperature. Use the pressure-volume
diagram of the left ventricle below to answer Questions 1–4.

  1. What is the stroke volume in milliliters?
    A) 150
    B) 100
    C) 85
    D) 50
    E) 70
  2. What is the cardiac output of this patient?
    A) 7000 ml/min
    B) 50000 ml/min
    C) 8200 ml/min
    D) 8500 ml/min
    E) 5000 ml/min
  3. What is the extent of diastole in the ventricular pressure-volume
    relationship?
    A) At point B
    B) From point D to point A
    C) From point A to point C
    D) From point D and point B
    E) From point A and point B
  4. What is correct about isovolumetric contraction?
    A) Extends from B to C in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
    B) Extends from D to A in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
    C) Represents afterload in the ventricular pressure-volume curve
    D) Represents a decrease in pressure with preserved volume
    E) Depends on ventricular ejection
  5. Which statement about action potential of cardiac muscle is most
    accurate?
    A) The calcium from T-tubules is less important as it is for
    skeletal muscle
    B) Phase 0 is predominantly dependent on slow potassium
    channels
    C) The end of the action potential (phase 2) causes an opening of
    slow potassium channels
    D) Action potential cause myofibrils to contract
    E) Mucopolysaccharides inside the T-tubules provide chloride
    ions to trigger phase 0
  6. A 47-year-old man has an ejection fraction of 0.32 and an end-diastolic volume of 160 ml. What is (approximately) the value of
    end-systolic volume?
    A) 48 ml

Guyton and Hall Physiology Review 4th Edition pdf free download by John E. Hall

Unit IV: The Circulation

  1. Listed below are the hydrostatic and oncotic pressures within a
    microcirculatory bed.
    Plasma colloid osmotic pressure = 25 mm Hg
    Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 25 mm Hg
    Venous hydrostatic pressure = 5 mm Hg
    Arterial pressure = 80 mm Hg
    Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure = −5 mm Hg
    Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure = 10 mm Hg
    Capillary filtration rate = 150 ml/min
    What is the capillary filtration coefficient (in ml/min/mm Hg) for this
    capillary wall?
    A) 5
    B) 10
    C) 15
    D) 20
    E) 25
  2. A healthy 60-year-old woman with a 10-year history of
    hypertension stands up from a supine position. Which set of
    cardiovascular changes is most likely to occur in response to
    standing up from a supine position?

 

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